MHT CET MBA Mock Test Papers with Answers 2020 Free test

MHT CET MBA Mock Test Papers with Answers 2020 Free testMHT CET MBA Mock Test Papers with Answers 2020 Free test.


1. A certain type of mixture is prepared by mixing brand A at Rs.9 a kg. with brand B at Rs.4 a kg. If the mixture is worth Rs.7 a kg., how many kgs. of brand A are needed to make 40kgs. of the mixture?
Ans. Brand A needed is 24kgs.

2. A wizard named Nepo says “I am only three times my son’s age. My father is 40 years more than twice my age. Together the three of us are a mere 1240 years old.” How old is Nepo?
Ans. 360 years old.

3. One dog tells the other that there are two dogs in front of me. The other one also shouts that he too had two behind him. How many are they?
Ans. Three.

4. A man ate 100 bananas in five days, each day eating 6 more than the previous day. How many bananas did he eat on the first day?
Ans. Eight.

5. If it takes five minutes to boil one egg, how long will it take to boil four eggs?
Ans. Five minutes.

6. Three containers A, B and C have volumes a, b, and c respectively; and container A is full of water while the other two are empty. If from container A water is poured into container B which becomes 1/3 full, and into container C which becomes 1/2 full, how much water is left in container A?

7. ABCE is an isosceles trapezoid and ACDE is a rectangle. AB = 10 and EC = 20. What is the length of AE?
Ans. AE = 10.

8. In the given figure, PA and PB are tangents to the circle at A and B respectively and the chord BC is parallel to tangent PA. If AC = 6 cm, and length of the tangent AP is 9 cm, then what is the length of the chord BC?
Ans. BC = 4 cm.

9 Three cards are drawn at random from an ordinary pack of cards. Find the probability that they will consist of a king, a queen and an ace.
Ans. 64/2210.

10. A number of cats got together and decided to kill between them 999919 mice. Every cat killed an equal number of mice. Each cat killed more mice than there were cats. How many cats do you think there were ?
Ans. 991.

11. If Log2 x – 5 Log x + 6 = 0, then what would the value / values of x be?
Ans. x = e2 or e3.

12. The square of a two digit number is divided by half the number. After 36 is added to the quotient, this sum is then divided by 2. The digits of the resulting number are the same as those in the original number, but they are in reverse order. The ten’s place of the original number is equal to twice the difference between its digits. What is the number?
Ans. 46

13.Can you tender a one rupee note in such a manner that there shall be total 50 coins but none of them would be 2 paise coins.?
Ans. 45 one paisa coins, 2 five paise coins, 2 ten paise coins, and 1 twenty-five paise coins.

14.A monkey starts climbing up a tree 20ft. tall. Each hour, it hops 3ft. and slips back 2ft. How much time would it take the monkey to reach the top?
Ans.18 hours.

15. What is the missing number in this series? 8 2 14 6 11 ? 14 6 18 12
Ans. 9

16. The minute hand of a clock overtakes the hour hand at intervals of 64 minutes of correct time. How much a day does the clock gain or lose?
Ans. 32 8/11 minutes.

17. Solve for x and y: 1/x – 1/y = 1/3, 1/x2 + 1/y2 = 5/9.
Ans. x = 3/2 or -3 and y = 3 or -3/2.

18. Daal is now being sold at Rs. 20 a kg. During last month its rate was Rs. 16 per kg. By how much percent should a family reduce its consumption so as to keep the expenditure fixed?
Ans. 20 %.

19. Find the least value of 3x + 4y if x2y3 = 6.
Ans. 10.

20. Can you find out what day of the week was January 12, 1979?
Ans. Friday.

21. A garrison of 3300 men has provisions for 32 days, when given at a rate of 850 grams per head. At the end of 7 days a reinforcement arrives and it was found that now the provisions will last 8 days less, when given at the rate of 825 grams per head. How, many more men can it feed?
Ans. 1700 men.

22. From 5 different green balls, four different blue balls and three different red balls, how many combinations of balls can be chosen taking at least one green and one blue ball?
Ans. 3720.

23. Three pipes, A, B, & C are attached to a tank. A & B can fill it in 20 & 30 minutes respectively while C can empty it in 15 minutes. If A, B & C are kept open successively for 1 minute each, how soon will the tank be filled?
Ans. 167 minutes.

24. A person walking 5/6 of his usual rate is 40 minutes late. What is his usual time?
Ans. 3 hours 20 minutes.

25. Mr. Shah decided to walk down the escalator of a tube station. He found that if he walks down 26 steps, he requires 30 seconds to reach the bottom. However, if he steps down 34 stairs he would only require 18 seconds to get to the bottom. If the time is measured from the moment the top step begins to descend to the time he steps off the last step at the bottom, find out the height of the stair way in steps?
Ans.46 steps.

Reasoning Ability

Directions—(Q. 1–5) The President of a club is appointing nine officials A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I to serve on three committees to study three different aspects of activities of the club. There will be a Games Committee, a Food Service Committee and an Entertainment Committee. The appointments must respect the following—
>> Each committee must have exactly three members.
>> No person can serve on more than one committee.
>> H must serve on the Entertainment Committee.
>> C and D must serve on the same committee.
>> A and B cannot serve on the same committee.
>> E cannot serve on the same committee as I.
>> F must serve on the same committee as B or H or both B and H.

1. If B and G serve on the Games Committee, which of the following must serve on the Food Service Committee ?
(A) A
(B) D
(C) E
(D) F
Ans : (B)

2. Which of the following groups could constitute the Games Committee ?
(A) A, B, E
(B) A, D, G
(C) C, H, E
(D) F, I, B
Ans : (D)

3. If A is assigned to the Food Service Committee and C is appointed to Entertainment Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
1. G is appointed to the Food Service Committee.
2. E is appointed to the Games Committee.
3. I is appointed to the Entertainment Committee.
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and III only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (A)

4. If F serves on the Food Service Committee and C serves on the same committee as H, then which of the following must serve on the Games Committee ?
1. A 2. G 3. I
(A) I only
(B) III only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
Ans : (C)

5. If I is on the Entertainment Committee and B is on the Food Service Committee, then which of the following must be true ?
(A) F is on the Entertainment Committee
(B) C is on the Games Committee
(C) G is on the Food Service Committee
(D) F is on the Games Committee
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 6–10) Letters of certain words have been rearranged and the jumbled spellings have been given below. Out of the choices given below each question, choose the last letter of the correct word—

(A) A
(B) D
(C) T
(D) Y
Ans : (D)

(A) C
(B) E
(C) L
(D) O
Ans : (B)

(A) A
(B) C
(C) P
(D) T
Ans : (D)

(A) E
(B) L
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (C)

(A) E
(B) I
(C) R
(D) S
Ans : (A)

Directions—(Q. 11–15) Find out the correct answer out of the four alternatives given below each question and then mark it in your answer sheet.

11. Ice : Coolness : : Earth : ?
(A) Forest
(B) Weight
(C) Gravitation
(D) Ocean
Ans : (C)

12. Coconut : Shell : : Letter : ?
(A) Mail
(B) Letter-box
(C) Stamp
(D) Envelope
Ans : (D)

13. Income is related to profit in the same way as expenditure is related to—
(A) Loss
(B) Surplus
(C) Balance
(D) Sale
Ans : (A)

14. Much is related to many in the same way as measure is related to—
(A) Calculate
(B) Count
(C) Weigh
(D) Measurement
Ans : (B)

15. Clue is related to Mystery in the same way as warning is related to—
(A) Precaution
(B) Disaster
(C) Risk
(D) Danger
Ans : (D)

16. Find the oddman out—
(A) MOndAy
(B) tUESdAy
(D) thUrSdAy
Ans : (B)

17. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way and hence form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to the group ?
Ans : (B)

18. Three of the following four have similar relationship and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to the group ?
Ans : (A)

19. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
Ans : (D)

20. Three of the four groups of letters given below are alike in a certain way while one is different. Choose the odd one—
(A) IW
(B) MS
(C) FT
(D) JU
Ans : (D)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) Find out the missing term in the following letternumber series—

21. H 4 W, I 18 V, K 48 T, N 100 Q, ?, W 294 H
(A) P 1485 S
(B) R 180 M
(C) S 198 I
(D) T 206 K
Ans : (B)

22. 1 ED, 2 FD, 3 KH, ?, 15 KG, 48 KF
(A) 12 PX
(B) 6 RI
(C) 9 LV
(D) 8 TQ
Ans : (B)

23. M 4, T 7, P 7, Q 10, S 10, N 13, ?, K 16
(A) V 4
(B) K 7
(C) T 13
(D) G 15
Ans : (C)

24. R 5 P, T 6 M, V 9 J, X 15 G, ?
(A) A 12 L
(B) I 18 X
(C) Z 25 D
(D) U 20 Q
Ans : (C)

25. DGK 0, GKP 3, ?, PVC 15
(A) GKV 5
(B) KPV 8
(C) PVZ 9
(D) KPU 11
Ans : (B)

26. If the first 6 letters of the English Alphabet series are written in reversed order, then the next 6 letters are written in reversed order and so on, and at the end Y is interchanged by Z, then which letter is fourth letter to the right of 13th letter from the left ?
(A) M
(B) N
(C) Q
(D) P
Ans : (B)

27. If the English Alphabet series is written in the reverse order and every alternate letter starting from Y is dropped, which letter will be exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the Alphabet series ?
(A) L
(B) O
(C) M
(D) N
Ans : (D)

28. If the letters in each of the following five groups of letters are first rearranged in the alphabetical order and then the groups of letters so formed are rearranged as in a dictionary, which letter group would have its group of letters in the MIDDLE among the five letter-groups ?
Ans : (C)

29. The letters skipped in between the adjacent letters in the series are followed by equal space. Which of the following series observes this rule ?
Ans : (D)

30. Select the series in which the letters skipped in between adjacent letters do not decrease in order—
Ans : (B)

MHT CET MBA Mock Test Papers with Answers 2016 Free test


Directions—(Q. 1–15) Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it. Certain Words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. Organic farming is either really expensive or really cheap, depending on where you live and whether or not you are certified. Not only are the ‘natural’ pesticides and fertilizers increasingly marketed by agribusiness as costly as or costlier than their chemical counterparts, but proving you are an organic farmer requires certification, which is time-consuming and expensive. In the USA, converting to organic agriculture is a huge undertaking for commercial farmers, who have relied on chemical fertilizers and pesticides for many decades, but in India, the conversion is no less arduous and far more ironic.
India’s farmers are still mostly practising organic methods, passed down for millennia. Organic fertilizer and natural pest control are the only tools available to most of these farmers, who have always lacked the financial resources to explore chemical solutions. But these farmers, whose produce is as organic as they come, cannot afford to pay the fees required to gain official certification.
As the international community adopts standards for organic agriculture, the challenges faced by farmers in the USA versus farmers in India in order to adapt are very different indeed. The danger is that the wellintentioned global move towards organic standards will make small organic farmers in countries like India, who have never done anything but organic farming, no longer able to sell their crops.
In response to the $ 26 billion global market for organic foods, the Indian Central Government set up a National Institute of Organic Farming in October 2003. The purpose of this institute is to formulate rules, regulations and certification of organic farm products in conformity with international standards. The institute has its offices across the country and has appointed certifying agencies for organic farm products for the domestic market. The certifying agencies are accountable for confirming that any product sold with the new ‘India Organic’ logo is in accordance with international criteria, and launch major awareness and marketing campaigns in India and abroad.
Organic farming has been identified as a major thrust area of the 10th plan of the central government. 1 billion rupees have been allocated to the aforementioned National Institute of Organic Farming alone for the 10th five-year plan. Despite this, most of India’s organic farms are not officially considered organic. Most of India’s farms are ‘organic by default’. The irony and difficulty of the new governmental push for organic agriculture is that 65% of the country’s cropped area is ‘organic by default’, according to a study. By this somewhat degrading term they mean that small farmers, located mostly in the Eastern and North-Eastern regions of the country, have no choice except to farm without chemical fertilizers or pesticides. Though this is true in many cases, it is also true that a significant number of them have chosen to farm organically, as their forefathers have done for thousands of years. Many have seen for themselves the effects of chemical farmingsoil erosion and loss of soil nutrients, loss of nutrition in food and human diseases resulting from the chemicals that inevitably seep into the water table, all the reasons for the urgent demand for organic foods and farming.
India currently has only 1,426 certified organic farms. This statistical discrepancy reveals that the weak link in the organic/economic chain is certification. Under current government policy, it takes four years for a farm to be certified as organic. The cost of preparing the report is a flat fee of Rs. 5,000 and the certificate itself costs another Rs. 5,000. While these costs are bearable for the new industrial organic greenhouses, they are equal to or more than an entire year’s income for the average small farmer, if the costs of travel and inspection are included.
In the United States, an organic farm plan or organic handling plan must be submitted to a USDAaccredited private or state certification program. The plan must explain all current growing and handling methods, and any materials that will be used—in the present and any future plans must be included as well. Records for the last five years must be presented. Land must be chemical free for three years prior to harvest, so a conventional farmer cannot receive the organic label for the transitional years. This will generally mean a decrease in income— crops may be less plentiful than with conventional fertilizers and pesticides and yet the higher price for organic products won’t yet be possible. Many farmers cannot afford the transition, even if they want to.
One solution to the small farmer’s dilemma of how to both certify and survive is that of community certification. In community certification, communities, on a nonprofit basis, take charge of the certification process themselves. They evaluate the farmer’s commitment to the stewardship of the soil and examine from many angles whether the food is being grown in an environmentally sensitive way or not, rather than technical standards. While community certification may be a viable solution on the local level, it is our opinion that, in the global market place, less than exact technical standards will never be enough for today’s consumer and in today’s largely poisoned environment, it shouldn’t be, either. Furthermore, such ‘soft’ guidelines can easily backfire on the farmers themselves, as a system not based on facts must be by definition subject to local politics, bribery, favoritism, etc.
India must find a way to keep the strict international organic standards intact if it wants to compete in the international market for organic foods, but is there a way to do it without leaving small farmers out in the cold ? One obvious solution is for the government to subsidize these certification fees enough to make it a viable option for ordinary farmers, not just for neo-organic factory farms and greenhouses. Banks also could provide a more level playing field for small farmers. Currently, almost all bank loans are for pure crop farmers. While many of these big-business farmers use harmful chemicals and processes, small farmers fertilizing their soil with recycled organic wastes are usually ineligible for insurance, much less state subsidies.

1. What role does the National Institute of Organic Farming have to play in the organic farming area ?
(A) To set standards for the import of material required for organic farming within India
(B) To ensure that Indian farm products conform to the international standard for organic foods
(C) To suggest methods to farmers for producing the best organic products
(D) To import the best organic foods from international countries and harvest them in India
(E) To set up agencies internationally for the marketing of Indian organic produce
Ans : (C)

2. Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage ?
(A) Agribusiness in India
(B) Organic Farming in India—An Irony
(C) Inorganic Farming—A Health Hazard
(D) Small and Marginal Farmers
(E) Organic Farming in India and the US
Ans : (B)

3. Why, according to the author, is the term ‘organic by default’ degrading ?
(A) The Indian farmers are adopting incorrect methods of organic farming, thereby rendering the crop useless
(B) As the crop cultivated out of organic farming is rejected by most international agencies
(C) As all the farmers in India do not have any access to chemical fertilizers and pesticides to carry out inorganic farming
(D) As the Govt. has issued a directive to farmers in India to carry out organic farming alone
(E) As it means that the farmers in India cannot afford to use anything but organic methods of farming
Ans : (C)

4. Which of the following are reasons for the increasing demand for organic foods and organic farming ?
1. Consumption of inorganic food has given rise to illnesses.
2. Excessive use of pesticides has caused soil erosion.
3. There has been a loss in soil nutrient value of soil due to chemical farming.
(A) Only 2
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3 are true
Ans : (D)

5. Why according to the author, will the idea of community certification not work ?
(A) As there may not be enough people in the community to work on a non-profit basis
(B) As the farmers may not be forthcoming in providing information about their cultivation practices and thus lead to the failure of this system
(C) As the certification granted through this scheme will not be authentic at all
(D) As certification sought in this manner may give rise to vested interests and also not meet the stringent criteria laid down globally
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)

6. Which of the following is true in the context of the passage ?
1. The Indian Govt. is not in favour of acquiring certification to meet global standards.
2. The process of certification is quite time-consuming and expensive.
3. The farmer does not earn much during the three-four years that it takes to get certification.
(A) Only 1 and 3
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

7. What, according to the author, is a major problem with Organic Farming in India ?
(A) Despite their organic nature most farms in India are not perceived as organic because of mere paperwork
(B) The Govt. has not paid attention to organic farming in India thereby promoting inorganic farming to a great extent
(C) Only recycled organic waste is available to Indian farmers for the purpose of organic farming
(D) Indian farmers are accustomed to the usage of chemicals and their farms have now started losing their fertility
(E) Large number of farmers in India is averse to the idea of organic farming as it is not profitable
Ans : (D)

8. Which of the following, according to the author, are factors that can help in acquiring organic farming certification in India ?
1. Providing more bank loans to small farmers.
2. Reducing the quantum of loans being provided to pure crop farmers.
3. Lowering the cost of certification.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 9–12) Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

(A) Pleasurable
(B) Different
(C) Difficult
(D) Hazardous
(E) Threatening
Ans : (C)

(A) Regularize
(B) Contemplate
(C) Apply
(D) Frame
(E) Mix
Ans : (D)

(A) Corrupting
(B) Minimizing
(C) Lowering
(D) Demeaning
(E) Worrying
Ans : (C)

(A) Extreme
(B) Intermediate
(C) Revolutionary
(D) Base
(E) Changed
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 13–15) Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.

13. VIABLE :
(A) Impossible
(B) Negative
(C) Deadly
(D) Practical
(E) Rudimentary
Ans : (A)

(A) Avoidably
(B) Mostly
(C) Certainly
(D) Expectedly
(E) Predictably
Ans : (A)

(A) Division
(B) Quarrel
(C) Tune
(D) Enmity
(E) Conflict
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 16–20) Which of the phrases (A), (B), (C) and (D) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct ? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (E) as the answer.

16. Since Riya did not want to be disturbed while studying, she left the phone off hooks.
(A) off the hook
(B) off hooking
(C) for the hook
(D) of hook
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

17. Since Shilpa was overburdened with work, Deepa decided to gave her hand.
(A) giving hands
(B) give her a hand
(C) giving her handful
(D) gave her hands
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

18. Despite having passed out from school over ten years back, most schoolmates has keep touch with each other.
(A) are kept touched
(B) is keeping touch
(C) keep touched
(D) had kept in touch
(E) No correction required
Ans : (C)

19. Sheela has well awareness of the fact that her actions would have terrible repercussions.
(A) was well aware of
(B) has aware for
(C) is aware to
(D) is in awareness with
(E) No correction required
Ans : (A)

20. Shashi tried as hard he would to win the race but failed to do so.
(A) as hardly so he could
(B) as hard as he could
(C) hardly so as
(D) so hard that could
(E) No correction required
Ans : (B)

Directions—(Q. 21–25) In each of the following questions four words are given of which two words are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning. Find the two words which are most nearly the same or opposite in meaning and indicate the number of the correct letter combination, by darkening the appropriate oval in your answer sheet.

21. (1) Disciple
(2) Student
(3) Academy
(4) Martyr
(A) 1–3
(B) 3–4
(C) 2–3
(D) 2–4
(E) 1–2
Ans : (E)

22. (1) Magnetic
(2) Cherished
(3) Valued
(4) Forlorn
(A) 3–4
(B) 1–2
(C) 2–4
(D) 2–3
(E) 1–4
Ans : (D)

23. (1) Ordinary
(2) Vague
(3) Custom

(4) Exceptional
(A) 1–2
(B) 2–3
(C) 3–4
(D) 1–4
(E) 2–4
Ans : (D)

24. (1) Damaged
(2) Hurried
(3) Condemned
(4) Measured
(A) 1–2
(B) 3–4
(C) 2–4
(D) 2–3
(E) 1–4
Ans : (C)

25. (1) Remote
(2) Troubled
(3) Secluded
(4) Apparent
(A) 2–3
(B) 1–4
(C) 2–4
(D) 3–4
(E) 1–3
Ans : (E)

Directions—(Q. 26–30) Rearrange the following six sentences (1), (2), (3), (4), (5) and (6) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the questions given below them.

(1) A legal framework is, thus, now available for promoting energy efficiency in all sectors of the economy.
(2) The increasing preference for commercial energy has led to a sharp increase in the demand for electricity and fossil fuels.
(3) There is still a considerable potential for repairing such damage and reducing energy consumption by adopting energy efficiency measures at various sectors of our country.
(4) This framework is nothing but the Energy Conservation Act, 2001, the success of which greatly depends on the people who take the lead in supporting this programme.
(5) This use of fossil fuels has resulted in emission of a huge quantity of carbon dioxide causing serious environmental damage.
(6) These adopted measures will not only reduce the need to create new capacity requiring high investment, but also result in substantial environmental benefits.

26. Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (B)

27. Which of the following should be the FOURTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 1
(D) 4
(E) 2
Ans : (B)

28. Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 5
(E) 6
Ans : (D)

29. Which of the following should be the LAST (SIXTH) sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (D)

30. Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after rearrangement ?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
(E) 5
Ans : (A)

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