DUET MPhil PhD in Botany Question Paper with Answer Keys 2019-20 Download PDF

DUET MPhil PhD in Botany Question Paper with Answer Keys 2019-20

DUET MPhil PhD in Botany Question Paper 2019-20Delhi University Entrance Test (DUET) 2019-20 MPhil PhD in Botany Question Paper with answers DUET MPhil PhD in Botany Question Paper 2019-20 with solution you can download it in FREE, if DUET MPhil PhD in Botany Question Paper 2019-20 in text or pdf for DUET MPhil PhD in Botany Question Paper 2019-20 Answer Keys you can download DUET 2019-20 page also just Go to menu bar, Click on File->then Save.

DUET MPhil PhD in Botany Question Paper with Answer Keys 2019-20

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EXAMPLE QUESTIONS

Q1. Which of the following statements is not true for nzz (NOZZLE gene mutant) of Arabidopsis?

  • 1. Plays an important role in placenta and ovule primordial differentiation
  • 2. Funiculus appears longer than the wild type ovules
  • 3. Precocious establishment of adaxial-abaxial polarity of ovule
  • 4. Integuments do not show asymmetrical growth

Q2. Which of the following plant defense response is not a characteristic of chewing herbivores?

  • 1. Increase in the production of volatile organic compounds like linalool and nerilidol. [Option ID = 7944]
  • 2. Increase in levels of amino-acid conjugated jasmonates.
  • 3. Increase in levels of amino acid-conjugated salicylates.
  • 4. Increase in the number of plant trichomes.

Q3. Which of the following molecule in not a HAMP?

  • 1. Linalool
  • 2. Volicitin
  • 3. Inceptin
  • 4. Benzyl cyanide

Q4. Which statement about a transition state analog in an enzymatic reaction is false?

  • 1. It may function as a non-competitive inhibitor of the enzyme.
  • 2. It fits better into the active site than the substrate.
  • 3. It usually is a strong inhibitor of the enzyme.
  • 4. It is a stable molecule and has a structure similar to the presumed transition state.

Q5. Which one of the following statements is incorrect for tetrasporic embryo sac formation?

  • 1. Triploid nucleus is formed by the fusion of three nuclei at chalazal end while, one nucleus remains haploid at the micropylar end.
  • 2. Meiosis results in a linear tetrad of megaspores of which either chalazal or micropylar megaspore participates in the embryo sac formation.
  • 3. Coenomegaspore consists of four haploid nuclei with a common cytoplasm.
  • 4. Four nuclei of coenomegaspore are arranged in a 1+2+1 manner.

Q6. Which one of the following statements is false?

  • 1. Centromeric regions have suppressed recombination.
  • 2. Genetic and physical maps are collinear.
  • 3. Genetic distances are equal to the actual physical distances between genes.
  • 4. Some regions on the chromosome are more prone to crossing over than others.

Q7. Which one of the following combinations of techniques can be used for analyzing expression levels of a transgene?

(i) Southern blotting and Northern blotting
(ii) Northern blotting and Western blotting
(iii) ELISA and qRT-PCR
(iv) FISH and SSR

  • 1. i and iv only
  • 2. i and iii only
  • 3. ii and iii only
  • 4. ii and iv only

Q8. Which one of the following is not an example of Pathogen Associated Molecular Patterns (PAMP)?

  • 1. Bacterial flagellin (flg22)
  • 2. Peptidoglycan (PGN)
  • 3. Elongation factor Tu (EF-Tu)
  • 4. Toll-like receptor (TLR)

Q9. Which one of the following is incorrect for CLAVATA3 gene?

  • 1. Its role is antagonistic to that of WUSCHEL gene.
  • 2. CLAVATA3 gene encodes a small protein expressed in the central zone of SAM.
  • 3. It is involved in maintenance of the root apical meristem.
  • 4. Mutation in CLAVATA3 results in club shaped siliques in Arabidopsis thaliana.

Q10. Which amino acid motifs present in the Release Factor 1 (RF1) are involved in translation, termination and peptide release from the  large subunit of ribosomes in eukaryotes?

  • 1. PVT motif and GGQ motif
  • 2. QQG motif and PLR motif
  • 3. PQR motif and PCR motif
  • 4. MVL motif and GNG motif

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